Discussion:
Were Balrogs Maiar?
(too old to reply)
Prateek
2006-07-21 03:36:57 UTC
Permalink
If Gandalf, had such difficulty fighting the balrog at moria, and even
died fighting it, how could it be just one of the thousands of soldiers
of melkor? Doesnt it prove that it was atleast as powerful as gandalf
(ie, a maiar). Or was it just because gandalf had taken a human form
and his powers were limited?
k***@gmail.com
2006-07-21 03:53:36 UTC
Permalink
Post by Prateek
If Gandalf, had such difficulty fighting the balrog at moria, and even
died fighting it, how could it be just one of the thousands of soldiers
of melkor? Doesnt it prove that it was atleast as powerful as gandalf
(ie, a maiar). Or was it just because gandalf had taken a human form
and his powers were limited?
Well, Gandalf was indeed limited in his human incarnation. And it's
not that surprising that a non-Ainu can fight with a crippled Maia.
For example there are occasions in which individual Noldor fight with
Balrogs, or even in Feanor's case with multiple Balrogs; Fingolfin
wounded Morgoth 7+ times, and the dragons seemed to generally be
regarded as more fearful than the Balrogs.

Having said all this the Balrog really was a Maia, as is said in the
Valaquenta (I think, it might also have been one of the first chapters
of Quenta Silmarillion). Melkor gathered his Maiar about him in Utumno
and the most feared of them were the demons of power, or the Balrogs.

However way back, the Balrogs weren't Maiar, which explains why you got
stuff like "there came Balrogs one thousand" when obviously if there
were really a thousand of them the Noldor would be in for it. Later
on, after he decided the Balrogs were Maiar JRRT shrunk the number and
at one point he said there were "at most seven".
Tux Wonder-Dog
2006-07-21 13:03:44 UTC
Permalink
Post by k***@gmail.com
Post by Prateek
If Gandalf, had such difficulty fighting the balrog at moria, and even
died fighting it, how could it be just one of the thousands of soldiers
of melkor? Doesnt it prove that it was atleast as powerful as gandalf
(ie, a maiar). Or was it just because gandalf had taken a human form
and his powers were limited?
Well, Gandalf was indeed limited in his human incarnation. And it's
not that surprising that a non-Ainu can fight with a crippled Maia.
For example there are occasions in which individual Noldor fight with
Balrogs, or even in Feanor's case with multiple Balrogs; Fingolfin
wounded Morgoth 7+ times, and the dragons seemed to generally be
regarded as more fearful than the Balrogs.
I would have thought that the process of exercising their Balrogish malice
over the stuff of Ea would have had the same effect on Maiar as it had on
Morgoth. Ie, weakening them significantly.
Post by k***@gmail.com
Having said all this the Balrog really was a Maia, as is said in the
Valaquenta (I think, it might also have been one of the first chapters
of Quenta Silmarillion). Melkor gathered his Maiar about him in Utumno
and the most feared of them were the demons of power, or the Balrogs.
However way back, the Balrogs weren't Maiar, which explains why you got
stuff like "there came Balrogs one thousand" when obviously if there
were really a thousand of them the Noldor would be in for it. Later
on, after he decided the Balrogs were Maiar JRRT shrunk the number and
at one point he said there were "at most seven".
--
"Good, late in to more rewarding well."  "Well, you tonight.  And I was
lookintelligent woman of Ming home.  I trust you with a tender silence."  I
get a word into my hands, a different and unbelike, probably - 'she
fortunate fat woman', wrong word.  I think to me, I justupid.
Let not emacs meta-X dissociate-press write your romantic dialogs...!!!
Steuard Jensen
2006-07-21 17:10:48 UTC
Permalink
Post by Prateek
If Gandalf, had such difficulty fighting the balrog at moria, and even
died fighting it, how could it be just one of the thousands of soldiers
of melkor?
Doesnt it prove that it was atleast as powerful as gandalf (ie, a
maiar). Or was it just because gandalf had taken a human form and
his powers were limited?
The Balrogs were explicitly identified as Maiar in the later versions
of the legendarium. (Tolkien made that decision shortly before LotR
was published; the details of textual history are summarized in
Conrad's third "Truth About Balrogs" essay, which you can find at
http://tolkien.slimy.com/essays/TAB3.html.) I think they may even be
listed in the "Of Enemies" section of the Valaquenta in /The
Silmarillion/.

Meanwhile, Gandalf was certainly quite limited by his human form: that
was one of the main reasons that the Istari were bound to human forms
in the first place. Their mission was explicitly not one of direct
confrontation with Sauron's power, and cloaking their power in human
forms seems to have been a way of ensuring that.

But more broadly, I don't know that I would be so quick to assume that
any Maia could defeat any non-Ainu. Yes, the Maiar are in general
"more powerful" than Incarnates like Elves and Men, but that doesn't
mean that every Maia is stronger in every way than every Elf. (After
all, Tulkas was apparently the best "fist fighter" of the Valar by far
and feared by Melkor as such, and he wasn't even one of the greatest
Valar. And at least two Balrogs were in fact killed by Elves.) I'm
generally hesitant to deduce too much from "who's more powerful than
whom".

Steuard Jensen
Prateek
2006-07-21 17:31:18 UTC
Permalink
One more question, since the witch kings were in the wraith world,
could they see gandalf in his maia form in the fields of pellenor? I
have one more confusion, did all the elves existed in both the worlds
or just the High Elves? Sorry for stupid questions, im just a newbie.

And is there any other "archive" of the previous questions discussed at
this forum besides Mr. Jensen's FAQ and Oakroadsystems.com?
Steuard Jensen
2006-07-22 18:03:16 UTC
Permalink
Post by Prateek
One more question, since the witch kings were in the wraith world,
could they see gandalf in his maia form in the fields of pellenor?
Good question. :) I'm not sure that we know the answer, to be
honest. I wouldn't be surprised if Gandalf were particularly visible
in the Unseen world (or at least if his magic was: I'm reminded of his
comments about announcing "Gandalf is here" when he lit the fire on
Caradhras). But I don't know of any direct statement or even evidence
in the text to that effect. Can anyone else think of anything?
Post by Prateek
I have one more confusion, did all the elves existed in both the
worlds or just the High Elves?
That's another interesting question. My impression is that only the
High Elves did, and probably in particular only the High Elves who had
lived in Valinor (as opposed to their children born in Middle-earth).
This connects with all sorts of other interesting questions, such as
"Could Glorfindel have seen Frodo while wearing the Ring?". (Clearly
the Wood-Elves couldn't see Bilbo when he wore it, which might be
indirect evidence that they didn't "exist in both worlds".)
Post by Prateek
Sorry for stupid questions, im just a newbie.
Those aren't stupid at all! Not even remotely stupid. :) And we've
all been newcomers at one time or another; the groups try to be
reasonably friendly to new people.
Post by Prateek
And is there any other "archive" of the previous questions discussed
at this forum besides Mr. Jensen's FAQ and Oakroadsystems.com?
Not really. You might think about searching for earlier discussions
of a topic using Google Groups (there have probably been good related
discussions at some point in the past fifteen years), but most topics
are welcome even if they've been discussed at length in the past.
(Now, if they were discussed at length just last month, some people
might be a bit annoyed... :) ).

Welcome!
Steuard Jensen
Stan Brown
2006-07-23 13:53:02 UTC
Permalink
Sat, 22 Jul 2006 18:03:16 GMT from Steuard Jensen
Post by Steuard Jensen
I wouldn't be surprised if Gandalf were particularly visible
in the Unseen world (or at least if his magic was: I'm reminded of his
comments about announcing "Gandalf is here" when he lit the fire on
Caradhras).
I always took that just to refer to the sudden burst of light, enough
to set soaked wood on fire in a windstorm. "At once a great spout of
green and blue flame sprang out, and the wood flared and sputtered."
It must have looked as bright as lightning, but not the same color.

"I have written Gandalf is here in signs that all can read from
Rivendell to the mouths of Anduin." I took that as poetical
exaggeration. If it were some sort of trace in the spirit world,
would it have been limited geographically?
--
Stan Brown, Oak Road Systems, Tompkins County, New York, USA
http://OakRoadSystems.com
Tolkien FAQs: http://Tolkien.slimy.com (Steuard Jensen's site)
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Encyclopedia of Arda: http://www.glyphweb.com/arda/default.htm
more FAQs: http://oakroadsystems.com/genl/faqget.htm
Steuard Jensen
2006-07-23 22:03:12 UTC
Permalink
Post by Stan Brown
I wouldn't be surprised if Gandalf were particularly visible in
the Unseen world (or at least if his magic was: I'm reminded of
his comments about announcing "Gandalf is here" when he lit the
fire on Caradhras).
I always took that just to refer to the sudden burst of light, enough
to set soaked wood on fire in a windstorm. "At once a great spout of
green and blue flame sprang out, and the wood flared and sputtered."
It must have looked as bright as lightning, but not the same color.
Yeah, but with all the nasty weather around them, I'd be somewhat
surprised if the physical flash was visible even half a mile away.
(Maybe the weather had already cleared more than that, but this has
been my mental image.) A momentary flash of light with quite limited
range (even a dozen miles or so) doesn't seem like that much of a
breach of secrecy, no matter what its color.
Post by Stan Brown
"I have written Gandalf is here in signs that all can read from
Rivendell to the mouths of Anduin." I took that as poetical
exaggeration. If it were some sort of trace in the spirit world,
would it have been limited geographically?
As I see it, if a flash of light on Caradhras that didn't blow up the
entire mountain was recognizable all the way to the mouths of Anduin,
it /wasn't/ limited geographically. :) I seriously doubt that the
residents of Pelargir regularly sat back to watch the thunderstorms
over the central Misty Mountains.

But if Gandalf was simply exaggerating, what /did/ he mean? He must
have been implying that lighting the fire somehow made his presence
known for a great distance (even if not as far as his literal words
would suggest). The question is, could recognizable physical light
travel far enough to give his words any meaning at all?

I've tended to think "no" (both due to the weather and because of
ordinary effects of distance), but I'm open to counterarguments.

Steuard Jensen
Matthew Bladen
2006-07-23 22:21:20 UTC
Permalink
On Sun, 23 Jul 2006 22:03:12 GMT, Steuard Jensen
(***@midway.uchicago.edu) said:

[snip - Gandalf's multi-coloured pyromania]
Post by Steuard Jensen
But if Gandalf was simply exaggerating, what /did/ he mean? He must
have been implying that lighting the fire somehow made his presence
known for a great distance (even if not as far as his literal words
would suggest). The question is, could recognizable physical light
travel far enough to give his words any meaning at all?
I've tended to think "no" (both due to the weather and because of
ordinary effects of distance), but I'm open to counterarguments.
Doesn't Gandalf simply mean that anyone hailing from the region between
Rivendell and the mouths of Anduin would recognise the green and blue
flame as being his handiwork, if they saw it? I never interpreted his
words any other way till I read this thread.

However, if he *is* exaggerating for comic / ironic effect, which is the
other way of reading that passage, then there's no mileage in taking it
to bits. He's just being Gandalf.
--
Matthew
Christopher Kreuzer
2006-07-25 19:09:18 UTC
Permalink
<snip>
Post by Steuard Jensen
Post by Stan Brown
"I have written Gandalf is here in signs that all can read from
Rivendell to the mouths of Anduin." I took that as poetical
exaggeration. If it were some sort of trace in the spirit world,
would it have been limited geographically?
As I see it, if a flash of light on Caradhras that didn't blow up the
entire mountain was recognizable all the way to the mouths of Anduin,
it /wasn't/ limited geographically. :) I seriously doubt that the
residents of Pelargir regularly sat back to watch the thunderstorms
over the central Misty Mountains.
I've never been sure if Gandalf literally meant anyone who could see
this, would be able to see it whether they were in Rivendell or at the
mouths of Anduin, or somewhere inbetween.

But there is a simpler, literal, explanation.

He may just be saying that lots of people, in the area between Rivendell
and the mouths of Anduin, would be able to interpret these signs, IF
they were within "seeing" distance. In other words, the type of magic he
has used is very specific to him, and easily recognised as such across a
wide area of Middle-earth. A bit like writing something on the side of a
mountain in English and saying that "all from Chicago to the mouths of
the Mississippi" can read it. In other words, lots of the people in that
area speak English and will be able to read it.

Christopher
--
---
Reply clue: Saruman welcomes you to Spamgard
Odysseus
2006-07-24 00:00:51 UTC
Permalink
In article <***@news.individual.net>,
Stan Brown <***@fastmail.fm> wrote:

<snip>
Post by Stan Brown
"I have written Gandalf is here in signs that all can read from
Rivendell to the mouths of Anduin." I took that as poetical
exaggeration. If it were some sort of trace in the spirit world,
would it have been limited geographically?
I never took it to refer to anything other than his reputation for
pyrotechnical skill.
--
Odysseus
Steuard Jensen
2006-07-24 16:23:00 UTC
Permalink
Post by Odysseus
Post by Stan Brown
"I have written Gandalf is here in signs that all can read from
Rivendell to the mouths of Anduin." I took that as poetical
exaggeration.
I never took it to refer to anything other than his reputation for
pyrotechnical skill.
If that was his intent, then he strangely understated his
reputation. :) At the very least, his reputation for pyrotechnics
extended strongly all the way to the Shire (where he had strongly
reinforced that reputation just a few years previously). And I would
think that the Elves at the Havens were probably aware of his
reputation as well. Why would he have "cut short" the range of his
reputation at Rivendell?

(And, of course, why would he comment on his broad reputation for
pyrotechnics when the view of what he'd just done would have been
blotted out by the blizzard well under a mile away?)

Steuard Jensen

P.S. Having said all that, I hadn't ever read this passage as a
simple comment about his reputation before. That doesn't really seem
to fit to me, as I've argued above, but I'll probably need to ponder
it for a while to make sure that I'm not just reflexively defending my
own reading. :)
Dirk Thierbach
2006-07-25 13:04:33 UTC
Permalink
Post by Steuard Jensen
Post by Odysseus
Post by Stan Brown
"I have written Gandalf is here in signs that all can read from
Rivendell to the mouths of Anduin." I took that as poetical
exaggeration.
I never took it to refer to anything other than his reputation for
pyrotechnical skill.
If that was his intent, then he strangely understated his
reputation. :)
I don't think one should take "from Rivendell to the mouths of
Anduin" literally. It just stands for "quite a lot of people
could figure out that I am here just by observing how I made fire".
If he would add an exhaustive description about all the areas where
people might, and with what probability, recognize him that way,
then he'd really spoil that remark :-)
Post by Steuard Jensen
(And, of course, why would he comment on his broad reputation for
pyrotechnics when the view of what he'd just done would have been
blotted out by the blizzard well under a mile away?)
Because there may be spies, like the crebain, or other creatures
near enough to observe it nevertheless.
Post by Steuard Jensen
P.S. Having said all that, I hadn't ever read this passage as a
simple comment about his reputation before.
Well, for what it's worth, I never took it to mean anything other than
"if anyone can see this, he'll very probably know who I am", based on
his reputation for pyrotechnics. If this reputation is exaggerated
or understated doesn't really matter.

- Dirk
Troels Forchhammer
2006-08-12 22:27:19 UTC
Permalink
In message <news:sU7wg.47$***@news.uchicago.edu>
***@midway.uchicago.edu (Steuard Jensen) enriched us with:
<snip>

Regarding the nature and relative 'power' of Maiar (originating from
the question of Balrogs, and the relative 'power' of Gandalf the Grey
and the Balrog in Moria)
Post by Steuard Jensen
But more broadly, I don't know that I would be so quick to assume
that any Maia could defeat any non-Ainu.
At least both Glorfindel and Ecthelion (both of Gondolin) prove
otherwise, and though we are not told so explicitly, I get the
impression that Fëanor killed some from the descriptions of his last
fight, when he was finally dealt a fatal blow by Gothmog (it would
somehow not seem 'right' if Fëanor should have fallen without killing
at least one of the Balrogs).
Post by Steuard Jensen
Yes, the Maiar are in general "more powerful" than Incarnates like
Elves and Men,
[...]

I wouldn't even be too sure about that, though you are probably
right.

As I am coming to think of it, I believe that there were a large
number of rather weak discarnate spirits in Arda. Whether these were
Maiar or not would exclusively depend on whether they existed prior
to Eä or not.

The Maiar that we hear about in particular, Sauron, Olórin, Melian,
Eonwë, Ossë, Uinen, Arien, Tilion and others are doubtlessly much
more powerful than any Incarnate, even Fëanor -- they may even have
approached the might of the Valar themselves (didn't Tolkien say as
much somewhere?), but for the broad masses of the Maiar, the picture,
I think, could very well be different.

That is not to say that Maiar, on the average, were less 'powerful'
(insofar as 'power' in Tolkien's Eä can be meaningfully described by
a scalar) than the mean Incarnate, but I think that sufficient
overlap existed that a very signficant fraction of Maiar were less
powerful than the most powerful of Incarnates -- and even of Men.

The point where I am very much in doubt is whether there were any
spirits (i.e. naturally discarnate beings) that were created for and
within Eä (and thus did not, as the Ainur, precede Time -- even if
that is an oxymoron <G>). The existence of such -- be that elemental
sprites, nature spirits or whatever (or them all), could explain many
of the mysteries, though not necessarily any better than simply
assuming that the Maiar as a group was much broader than what is
explicitly evidenced in Tolkien's writings).

As it is, I prefer to think of such 'spirits' as 'existing' in their
own right in Eä, but without actually coming to a decision regarding
their detailed nature and origin.
Post by Steuard Jensen
I'm generally hesitant to deduce too much from "who's more
powerful than whom".
It is, IMO, at best a simplification to regard power as a scalar in
Tolkien's writings, even though he does, at times, seem to do so
himself, I do get the feeling that he is rather looking at power, as
we might say, as 'projected' along a certain direction (e.g. as you
used the 'fist-fighting' ability of Tulkas), whereas a statement such
as Melkor being the most powerful of all Ainur seems rather to refer
to the 'volume integral' (sorry to invoke such mathematical language,
but it's the only language I have at my disposal to put words to
this). Overall I think of power as represented by some multi-
dimensional surface, not unlike the graphical representation of
directional antenna or atomic orbitals (only in far more than 3
dimensions). The overall power is best represented by the total
volume, but that rather ignores that the power that can be brought to
bear on any specific task is read along the direction representing
that particular purpose.
--
Troels Forchhammer
Valid e-mail is <t.forch(a)email.dk>

The significant problems we have cannot be solved at the
same level of thinking with which we created them.
- Albert Einstein
k***@gmail.com
2006-08-13 09:57:23 UTC
Permalink
Post by Odysseus
<snip>
Regarding the nature and relative 'power' of Maiar (originating from
the question of Balrogs, and the relative 'power' of Gandalf the Grey
and the Balrog in Moria)
Post by Steuard Jensen
But more broadly, I don't know that I would be so quick to assume
that any Maia could defeat any non-Ainu.
At least both Glorfindel and Ecthelion (both of Gondolin) prove
otherwise, and though we are not told so explicitly, I get the
impression that Fëanor killed some from the descriptions of his last
fight, when he was finally dealt a fatal blow by Gothmog (it would
somehow not seem 'right' if Fëanor should have fallen without killing
at least one of the Balrogs).
Well, back in the day it was claimed that before the Fall of Gondolin,
no Balrog had ever been killed; and this was when there were thousands
of Balrogs and so forth (although it's hard to imagine why the death
toll went from 0 to dozens in one fight).

Then again, I forgot whether back in the BoLT days Feanor even fought
with the Balrogs at all.

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