tony
2015-11-24 00:32:59 UTC
In letter 160, “From a letter to Rayner Unwin 6 March 1955” Tolkien asserts:
“while those who enjoy
the book [The Lord of the Rings] as an 'heroic romance' only, and find
'unexplained vistas' part of the literary effect, will neglect the
appendices, very properly.”
Tolkien seems to be implying here that readers who enjoy “Lord of the Rings”
as a romance novel do not appreciate the novel in the way he intended.
However, in letter 329, “From a letter to Peter Szabó Szentmihályi (draft)
[October 1971]” he declares “My work is not a 'novel', but an 'heroic
romance' a much older and quite different variety of literature.”
Did Tolkien change his opinion of his own work from 1955 to 1971? Or was he
talking about different works: “The Silmarillion” in 1955 and “The Lord of
the Rings” in 1971? And if “The Silmarillion” is not a romance, What is it?
A pseudo-mythology? And in what sense is “The Lord of the Rings” a romance?
Is it a romance in the sense that the “Alliterative Morte Arthure” is a
romance?
“while those who enjoy
the book [The Lord of the Rings] as an 'heroic romance' only, and find
'unexplained vistas' part of the literary effect, will neglect the
appendices, very properly.”
Tolkien seems to be implying here that readers who enjoy “Lord of the Rings”
as a romance novel do not appreciate the novel in the way he intended.
However, in letter 329, “From a letter to Peter Szabó Szentmihályi (draft)
[October 1971]” he declares “My work is not a 'novel', but an 'heroic
romance' a much older and quite different variety of literature.”
Did Tolkien change his opinion of his own work from 1955 to 1971? Or was he
talking about different works: “The Silmarillion” in 1955 and “The Lord of
the Rings” in 1971? And if “The Silmarillion” is not a romance, What is it?
A pseudo-mythology? And in what sense is “The Lord of the Rings” a romance?
Is it a romance in the sense that the “Alliterative Morte Arthure” is a
romance?