Post by Paul S. PersonOn Sun, 28 Mar 2010 11:10:45 +0100, Troels Forchhammer
I guess we all know the feeling of hitting 'send' and five minutes
later slapping your forehead and wondering 'why did I put it like
that' or 'this was completely nonsense' or (perhaps more commonly)
'why didn't I say'. Well, I tried to stall this, and this is my
second attempt to respond to this (though I have my first attempt to
refer to where the argumentation is still, in my view, valid) -- then
we'll see if it makes any difference ;-) (I will inevitably still
repeat myself, but I hope to keep it at a lower level than it would
otherwise have been)
I've rearranged things slightly to achieve what I believe is a better
order -- I hope this is OK.
I will also add that everything, in particular when it comes to
literary interpretation and analysis, is very much 'in my opinion'
whether or not I remember to say this at every turn (sometimes one
does tend to forget to put in that 'I am convinced that' or just
'IMO').
Post by Paul S. PersonPost by Troels ForchhammerI honestly believe it is a mistake to take the narrative conceit
to the point that you could argue with any statement in the
narrative voice and claim that it is possible that someone else
would have experienced it differently. It was natural to Tolkien
to build into his narrative a tradition of its transmission, but
this should not question the objective veracity (within the sub-
creation) of the story.
Sorry to break it off, but, really, I think your point is made in
the above.
As you can see, I have re-inserted part of what you snipped, and put
the part that you didn't snip below this. This is because I think
this issue is really the main point of disagreement between the two
of us, and I'd like to explore this a little further. The issue that
I am referring to is particularly the interpretation of the narrative
conceit, and in particular the factual status of statements made in
the narrative voice.
Post by Paul S. PersonPost by Troels ForchhammerWithin the narrative conceit of the story, you are of course right
that _everything_ in the book is a subjective account (something
which would apply doubly to _The Hobbit_) written down by Bilbo,
Frodo and Sam based on the accounts of their friends -- primarily
these three themselves as well as Merry and Pippin, but if you
leave the narrative for a moment, it is clearly _Tolkien_ who is
saying these things in the narrative voice -- there are statements
made in that voice, for instance statements made about Shelob,
that no one could know, not even a Fourth Age loremaster in Gondor
would be able to know these details.
Yes, some things might fall into the category of "only the
Narrator could know this", where the Narrator is JRRT, but the
passage cited isn't one of them (my thanks to TT Arvind for
My point was that this IMO extends to _all_ of the narrative voice,
not just to individual passages. What you are suggesting appears to
me to be a kind of pick and choose that is far more subjective (in
particular since it is based on what is really ad hoc arguments) --
you cannot IMO just arbitrarily decide that this passage is
objectively true (within the sub-created Secondary World) and that
the other is a subjective impression that is objectively untrue -- if
we accept that the narrative voice in one place is really that of
Tolkien, then this must extend to the whole book -- that the
narrative voice is Tolkien's (or, if you wish to stay within the
narrative conceit, that Tolkien supports and validates the narrative
voice by making it his own).
Post by Paul S. PersonPost by Troels ForchhammerPost by TT Arvind"'If I had my way, you'd wish you were dead now,' said the
other. 'I'd make you squeak, you miserable rat.' He stooped over
Pippin bringing his yellow fangs close to his face."
This is /entirely/ what Pippin saw.
Yes -- precisely!
Post by Paul S. PersonOr rather, remembered he saw, later.
I don't think so. It is clearly _exactly_ what Pippin saw, but not in
the sense of 'how he later remembered it'. The whole point is that
this, in my considered opinion, is meant to be the objective truth of
the story. You have a valid point when it comes to statements made in
dialogue[#], but I am convinced that it is a mistake to apply this
also to the narrative voice.
[#] 'Treebeard is a character in my story, not me; and though he
has a great memory and some earthy wisdom, he is not one of
the Wise, and there is quite a lot he does not know or
understand. (_Letters_ #153 to Peter Hastings, September 1954)
Post by Paul S. PersonSometimes I wonder if anyone else really takes seriously the idea
that the Red Book was written by Bilbo and Frodo -- that is, that
/TH/ and /LOTR/ (at least) were written by JRRT /as if they had
been written by Hobbits/ and so that what we read in them
represents that Hobbit viewpoint, and not necessarily that of the
Author.
There is still a significant difference as I see it. To say that
Tolkien wrote the book as if from the viewpoint of the hobbits is
_not_ the same as saying that it is not 'true' within the story --
that the orc did not actually stoop over Pippin, that the orc did not
have yellow fangs or that these fangs were not brought close to
Pippin's face. The viewpoint part has nothing to do with the
objective truth of the narrative, but with the _focus_ -- Aragorn
might have focused on the orc's eyes, but Pippin focuses on his
yellow fangs, but the orc unquestionably had both eyes and fangs.
If you claim that narrative focus (or viewpoint) makes the narrative
subjective in the sense that the veracity of certain elements can be
doubted, then I have to disagree strongly. The use of narrative focus
is a way to narrow which part of the sub-created reality that is
presented in the story, but it is[*] _not_ a way to present a 'this
is what the character remembers' account of the events: that kind of
subjectivity is presented in dialogue instead. The fact that Tolkien
also provided his stories with a tradition of transmission doesn't
change this -- they are still stories within a narrative tradition in
which the narrative voice is absolutely reliable.
If I have understood you correctly, then this is really at the heart
of any disagreement. I don't think that our views on Orcs are all
that different, though we may put it differently, but here I perceive
a real difference of opinion. So I will repeat my main position here:
I insist that the idea of narrative focus that Tolkien uses does not
make the narrative voice a subjective account in the sense that the
veracity of its statements can be doubted. The effect is that the
subjectively merely facilitates a choice of which facts to relate,
not the factual status of that which is related.
[*] At least in general -- there may very well be clear exceptions
to this, but Tolkien is not one of them.
Post by Paul S. PersonJRRT did not necessarily agree with every single thing
that he wrote from the viewpoint of the Hobbits -- had he done so,
Gandalf would just be a wandering magician famed for his
fireworks. That is what the Hobbits thought; JRRT thought
otherwise.
I am honestly perplexed here -- I don't understand what you mean.
In _The Hobbit_ Tolkien saw Gandalf as just the wandering magician
that was famed for his stories, his firework and for the magic
diamond studs he had given to the Old Took. Consequently that is how
he is portrayed throughout that book.
In _The Lord of the Rings_ Gandalf is never described as just a
wizard -- he is the Grey Wizard throughout, but this is also how he
is seen by the hobbit narrators.
In neither case is there any discrepancy between the views of the
author and of the focus character(s) -- Tolkien applies his own
knowledge to the narrator regardless of whom that, whithin the
narrative conceit, might be.
Post by Paul S. PersonThere is, of course, a difference between what may be loosely
called the "Silmarillion material", including most of /HOME/ (the
Bilbo was dealing with these issues long after the fact, and in
condensed form, and so did not have to contend with the emotional
nature of, say, Pippin's memory of the encounter recorded above.
It seems unlikely that Pippin's memory of the encounter would not be
affected by emotion, but when you try to extend that to the final
narrative you are, in my honest opinion, making a mistake.
Moving on to the discussion of Tolkien's Orcs, starting with a
Post by Paul S. Person| I also disagree that the orcs are just "very crude humans". There
| is a lot of ape in them as well, in addition to other non-human
| traits.
Note the absense of qualifiers: no "in my opinion"; no "I think
that"; no "They look like" at the start of the second sentence.
Just an unqualified statement of fact.
The topic is, then, not whether the Orcs are described as being
"like apes", but whether they were /formed, at least in part, from
apes/.
I have not, nor will I, claim that the Orcs are derived from apes.
Within Tolkien's sub-creation neither of the races from which they
may derive (i.e. Elves and/or Men) are evolved from apes[%] and so
the Orcs are certainly _not_ derived from apes in any sense.
I doubt, however, that Öjevind meant the above statement in this way
-- I read it rather as an acknowledgement of the bestial traits that
are clearly attributed to the Orcs throughout the story -- adding
beastial traits to humanoids inevitably, at least to me, invokes some
ape-like traits, which is what I understood Öjevind to refer to.
If the above, however, is the idea that you are arguing against
(whether or not it was the idea Öje or anyone else intended to
propound), then we are certainly in full agreement in this respect,
and I understand your anxiety to refute it even if I believe you have
misinterpreted the intention.
[%] I am aware that it is an oversimplification of the view of modern
biology to say that humans descend from apes, but the main point
should be clear enough without going into the intricacies of the
evolution of the hominids.
I will try to cut down the discussion on individual traits take a
step back to look at the bigger picture.
<snip>
Post by Paul S. PersonPost by Troels ForchhammerGrishnákh is, by the way, also described as having 'long arms that
hung almost to the ground' and the Orc that catches Pippin when he
had dropped the brooch is merely described as 'long arms and hard
claws'.
Described by terrified Hobbits.
You have at least three orcs (there might well be others -- I haven't
gone through all the book) described as having long arms at several
occasions (at least one of these orcs are so described more than once
-- unfortunately I don't now recall which one it was, though probably
it was Grishnákh) and in the narrative voice.
There are lots of this kind of bestial[&] references attributed to
Orcs in the book that hasn't yet been quoted in this thread, but I am
sure that you can keep coming up with ad Hoc reasons why the
narrative voice in each instance is not really a reliable witness, so
I don't think it will make much sense to go into these details.
I therefore urge that we try to take one step back and look not at
the individual statements, but at the mass of statements that apply
such bestial attributes to the Orcs: fangs, long arms, snarling,
growling, claws or that use beast similes for them: 'like apes',
'maggots' etc. The total effect is that the Orcs are very clearly
being portrayed in the narrative voice as having some beast-like
traits. This is not the same as saying that they are in any way
themselves beasts (though Tolkien also did consider that possibility)
or that they are derived from beasts -- it is merely that there is a
confluence of purposes here. Tolkien's literary purposes (portraying
the Orcs as degraded and evil) converges with Morgoth / Sauron's
purpose in creating them as fearsome and terrifying warriors.
[&] By 'bestial' in this context I don't mean that these traits
cannot be found among human beings, but that they nevertheless
in general do carry connotations of degeneration, degradation
and bestiality when applied to humans.
<snip>
Post by Paul S. PersonPost by Troels ForchhammerWe actually all have at least the remains of fangs. Presumably
Elven teeth are similar to human, and it thus doesn't matter from
what stock the Orcs were originally bred: there would be some pre-
existing, but very small and whimpy, 'fangs' that could be
enlarged through a carefully magic-enhanced breeding programme.
Or direct manipulation of (if I have the term right) the homeobox.
Something like that ;-) I am not a biologist, so please don't ask of
me greater detail than this. I am imagining something rather like the
traditional breeding programmes of lifestock meant to emphasize
certain desirable traits, but combined with magic to speed it up and
probably to emphasize the desired traits further than would otherwise
have been possible.
The traits that Melkor and/or Sauron would want to emphasize would be
those that made the Orcs more efficient as soldiers: strength,
aggression, stamina, but also traits that simply made them more
terrifying to their opponents; such as fangs or longer arms.
<snip>
Post by Paul S. PersonPost by Troels ForchhammerTolkien is carefully attributing many bestial traits to the Orcs.
All of the above qualities are some that we associate with beasts
rather than with humans (or Eruhíni), but this is really just
saying that it was an essential part of the breeding of the Orcs
to make them more bestial in both appearance and behaviour -- in
more modern evolutionary terms, the Orcs represent a reversal of
evolution to a more primitive, more ape-like, stage in our
evolution (but without significantly compromising intelligence).
I don't think so, not at all. I haven't seen /any/ trait assigned
to Orcs -- not even by terrified Hobbits -- that is "animal" in
the sense that Men do not exhibit it. Even the famous "long arms"
may be a known (but rare) trait of Men, albeit a developmental
aberration.
Sorry, I clearly didn't make my intention very clear.
Men _do_ occasionally display bestial traits: their canine teeth may
be enlarged to look like fangs, their arms may be abnormally long,
they may growl or snarl, they may even have abnormal amounts of body
hair (not that this applies to Orcs) and other traits. Often such
traits when found in humans are described as atavisms[€], and this is
precisely what I mean. All these traits are normally considered
bestial traits even when found in humans, and by applying so many of
them to his Orcs, Tolkien does achieve the effect he wants -- the
Orcs are described as the debased, degraded and _bestial_ humanoids
(and certainly not 'humanoid beasts' whatever Tolkien might elsewhere
have considered).
The growling and snarling is another good example of this. You
rightly point out that both words are used also about humans, but in
both cases an appropriate reaction might be to tell the person to
'Stop that! You behave like a beast.' It is the animal behaviour that
is the basis for both words -- _dogs_ growl and snarl, and from there
has been applied to Men who behave like beasts.
You can't tell a person with disproportionately long arms to 'stop
that', but there will, in my opinion, be a clear prejudice against
such a person because this trait will be seen as bestial. This is
very often the case with atavistic conditions -- the people who
suffer from such a condition often find themselves the victims of a
strong prejudice that they are somehow more beast-like than normal
humans.
I believe that Tolkien is playing with some of these prejudices when
he attributes some of these bestial or atavistic traits to his Orcs.
[€] It took me ages to find the correct term here -- I had heard it,
but couldn't remember it :-)
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atavism>
<snip>
Post by Paul S. PersonAnd, given, JRRT's description, it can be said, as it can always
be said of stereotypes, that there is some truth to it. The
problem with stereotypes is not that they are false (well, until
they get so exaggerated as to be clearly rediculous); the problem
is that they are invariably negative and so negatively affect
interactions on the one hand and that they do not apply to any
specific individual or, rather, that individuals to which they
apply are few and far between. They are denials of individuality
and, like all components of racism, have the effect of treating
the subjects as non-humans by treating them as all the same.
And that is the problem with the claim "There is a lot of ape in
them as well": it is not necessarily racist, but statements of
that sort have been used by racists in the past. A certain amount
of caution is needed in considering them.
I don't really disagree with anything that you say here about
stereotypes -- Tolkien himself invokes this particular stereotype in
his descriptions of the Orcs when he uses the ape simile at the
Battle of the Hornburg or when he has the orcs themselves use 'ape'
as an insult to other orcs.
In my view, however, you misapply it slightly when you apply it to
the narrative voice. This kind of prejudices by the characters are
not in my experience expressed in the narrative voice, but in
dialogue. The real 'target' here is the reader -- Tolkien attributes
his orcs with these bestial traits in order precisely to utilize the
stereotypes that this will invoke in his reader and therefore he
gives his orcs the attributes that will invoke the desired
stereotypes.
Post by Paul S. PersonI do not believe that there is any more "ape" in an Orc than there
is in a Man.
This depends, I would say, completely on what you mean by 'in' . . .
Given that genetics is put out of force by the direct creation by Eru
of Men and Elves, I would say that, genetically, there is less ape in
an Orc than there is in a real man, and exactly as much as there is
in a Middle-earth Man. That is, none.
But I don't think this is a matter of genetics at all. We are not
dealing with actual creatures, but with creatures in a tale, and they
can be attributed bestial or atavistic traits without changing the
genetics: it is a way to portray the degradation of the creatures to
attribute to them certain bestial traits, and with humanoids the
attribution of bestial traits often invokes the image of apes: the
picture of a best-like man is not so terribly far from the picture of
a man-like beast, an ape.
This doesn't mean that I think the Orcs are 'derived from apes' or
otherwise looks like apes above and beyond what has already been
discussed (long arms, fangs -- even descriptions of their hands as
'claws', though surely that, like the other attributes, is not meant
to be above and beyond what can in extreme cases be observed in
humans).
The whole point is that that Tolkien deliberately invokes the various
beast attributes for a literary purpose, but he cannot do that within
his narrative without reflecting back into the narrative. Invoking
these bestial attributes literarily, he also has to attribute them to
his Orcs within the story.
--
Troels Forchhammer <troelsfo(a)googlewave.com>
Valid e-mail is <troelsfo(a)gmail.com>
Please put [AFT], [RABT] or 'Tolkien' in subject.
Five exclamation marks, the sure sign of an insane mind. -
/Reaper Man/ (Terry Pratchett)