Post by Barry SchwarzIt is repeated several times in The Silmarillion that the Valar could
not remove the Gift of Ilúvatar from Men. So how is it that merely
possessing the One Ring, not necessarily wearing it, could postpone
the inevitable indefinitely. The ring contained no power that was not
inherently Sauron's to begin with. And he was only a Maia.
The Ring _did_ contain power that was not Sauron's originally. Sauron
did not simply transfer some of his existing power into the Ring.
Rather, he used that power to make the Ring a master Ring, a Ruling
Ring. Think of a man using a lever to pry a boulder out of the
ground, or turning a key that starts a powerful motor. Sauron with
the Ring was far more powerful than he had been before; but if it
were destroyed then so would be much of his power, forever.
Gandalf says in "The Shadow of the Past" that Sauron let "a great
part of his own former power" pass into the Ring. He'd have no
motivation to do that if he was merely weakening himself by X amount
and strengthening the Ring by the same amount. The only possible
reason for transferring much of his own power to the Ring was that
this would trigger an additional transfer of power to the Ring from
some other source. In /History of Middle-Earth" we find out that that
other source was the "Morgoth-element" in all the material of the
world.
As for removing the Gift of Men, neither the Valar nor Sauron did
they. The Valar gave long life to the Númenóreans, but they had to
die eventually. The Great Rings gave long life to their mortal
bearers, but _not_ immortality. When they were slain they really
died, and when the One Ring was destroyed, they ran out of "borrowed
time" and also died.
--
Stan Brown, Oak Road Systems, Tompkins County, New York, USA
http://BrownMath.com/
http://OakRoadSystems.com/
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